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Old 07-06-2009, 08:06 AM   #26
WildBillyT
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Frosty View Post
Jim, I think they use the term "reverse discrimination" because it's white people people being discriminated against. I guess everyone assumes(including the law) that white people originated discrimination against minorities so anytime a white person is in that position it's "reverse" discrimination. Just a hunch.
No, it's not that. I raised a big stink about how "reverse discrimination" seems to attribute discrimination to mainly one group of people back in a college social ethics course. It's not that. It's called "reverse discrimination" because white people are still the majority in the USA and are the "dominant" ethnic group. It's a relational thing. If Hispanics were the majority then it would be called "reverse discrimination" if they were discriminated against by white people.

I still think it's a ******** term and is still discrimination, and the implications are that it's one group that does most of it. But above is supposed to be the "real" explanation.

Last edited by WildBillyT; 07-06-2009 at 08:08 AM.
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