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Drivetrain power loss question
I was thinking about this for a while now, I know people usually say your driveline loss to the wheels is usually roughly done by X percent of your crank power. My question is why?
For instance, why does a 500 horse motor lose more power through a T56/10 bolt than let's say a 300 horse motor through the same drive train?
Why don't they both just lose "X" amount of power through the rest of the drive train?
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